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NEW QUESTION: 1
Organizations should exercise their Incident Response (IR) plan following initial creation. The primary objective for this first IR plan exercise is to identify:
A. deficiencies in cyber security incident responseteam skills.
B. gaps or overlaps in supporting processes and procedures.
C. capabilities required to improve response time.
D. critical steps required in the case of an incident.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:http://www.mckinsey.com/business-functions/digital-mckinsey/our-insights/how-good-is-your- cyberincident-response-plan
NEW QUESTION: 2
A borrower pays a floating rate on a loan and wishes to convert it to a position where a fixed rate is paid.
Which of the following can be used to accomplish this objective?
I. A short position in a fixed rate bond and a long position in an FRN
II. An long position in an interest rate collar and long an FRN
III. A short position in a fixed rate bond and a short position in an FRN IV. An interest rate swap where the investor pays the fixed rate
A. I and IV
B. II and III
C. None of the above
D. I, II and IV
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A short position in a fixed rate bond and a long position in an FRN has the effect of paying fixed and receiving floating. The floating received offsets the floating payment on the borrowing, leaving the borrower with just a fixed rate outflow. Therefore the combination identified in statement I can be used to achieve the objective of paying fixed.
A collar is equivalent to a long position in an interest rate cap combined with a short position in an interest rate floor. This has the effect of setting a range within which the investor's borrowing rate will vary. In the case where the cap and floor rates are the same, the combination of a collar and a long FRN effectively produces an outcome where the holder of such positions pays a fixed rate. Therefore, an interest rate collar can be used to convert the fixed payment to a floating rate payment. [Example: Assume current interest rate is 3%, and therefore the borrower has a liability of 3% on the FRN. Assume that the borrower now buys a collar at the strike rate of 4%. Now the borrower receives 0% (=Max(3 % - 4%, 0)) on the cap part of the collar, and pays 1% on the floor part of the collar (=Max(4% - 3%, 0)). The net borrowing cost therefore is 3% paid on the FRN plus 1% paid on the collar, equal to 4%. Now if interest rates rise to say 6%, the borrower pays 6% on the FRN, and receives 2% from the collar (=Max(6% - 4%, 0) - Max(4% - 6%, 0)), creating a net cost of 6% - 2% = 4%.
A collar is often issued with an FRN to convert floating flows to fixed. Therefore combination II is an acceptable choice.
A short position in a fixed rate bond and a short position in an FRN produces a cash flow that does not produce a net fixed cash outflow when combined with the borrowing. Therefore statement III is not a valid combination.
An interest rate swap where the investor pays fixed and receives floating, when combined with a floating payment on an FRN leaves a net fixed payment, Therefore statement IV is a valid way to achieve the borrower's objective.
NEW QUESTION: 3
You've decided to use AWS KMS to automatically unseal Vault on private EC2 instances. After deploying your Vault cluster, and running vault operator init, Vault responds with an error and cannot be unsealed.
You've determined that the subnet you've deployed Vault into doesn't have internet access. What can you do to enable Vault to communicate with AWS KMS in the most secure way?
A. ask the networking team to provide Vault with inbound access from the internet
B. change the permissions on the Internet Gateway to allow the Vault nodes to communicate over the Internet
C. add a VPC endpoint
D. deploy Vault in a public subnet and provide the Vault nodes with public IP addresses
Answer: C
Explanation:
In this particular question, a VPC endpoint can provide private connectivity to an AWS service without having to traverse the public internet. This way you hit a private endpoint for the service rather than connecting to the public endpoint.
This is more of an AWS-type question, but the underlying premise still holds regardless of where your Vault cluster is deployed. If you use a public cloud KMS solution, such as AWS KMS, Azure Key Vault, GCP Cloud KMS, or AliCloud KMS, your Vault cluster will need the ability to communicate with that service to unseal itself.
NEW QUESTION: 4
Your client is live with the 'Employee Transfer' process in the Production instance. The workflow, as shown in the screen shot, is triggered when transfer of an employee is initiated.
What is the expected behavior of this workflow? There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. The initiator of 'Employee Transfer1 process is given an option to choose 'NewHire Workflow1 as an alternate workflow to WF_Employee_Transfer
B. An approver of WF_Employee_Transfer can automatically route this request to another approver during vacation
C. WF_Employee_Transfer is not triggered if the transfer date of the employee is in the future
D. If an approver of WF_Employee_Transfer does not take any action for 3 days, a reminder notification is sent by the system
Answer: A,D